a distortionless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms, a is 20 mnp/meter, v
Answers
The values of R G are,
\(& \mathbf{R}=1.2 \Omega / \mathrm{m}, \mathbf{L}=333 \mathrm{nH} / \mathrm{m} \\\)
\(& \mathbf{G}=333 \mu \mathrm{S} / \mathrm{m} \text { and } \mathrm{C}=92.5 \mathrm{pF} / \mathrm{m}\)
What is distortion less transmission line?A distortion-free transmission line is one in which the phase constant () is linearly frequency-dependent and the attenuation constant () is frequency-independent. R L = G C. αIf the wave forms of the input and output are the same, the transmission is said to be distortion-free. In other words, for distortion-free transmission, the conditions y (t) = Kx are met by the input x(t) and output y(t) (t - td) Where k = constant and td = delay time. When the phase shift constant is linearly related to frequency and the attenuation constant is frequency independent, a transmission line is said to be distortion-free. distortion-free line is a requirement. Propagation constant: R/L=G/C. = (R + j ) (G + j )Given transmission line is distortion less and the given parameters are:
characteristic impedance\($\left(Z_0\right)=60 \Omega$\)
wave velocity \($(v)=0.6 \mathrm{c}$\), where\($\mathrm{c}$\) is the speed of light in a vacuum,
Attenuation constant \($(\alpha)=20 \mathrm{mNp} / \mathrm{m}$\).
\(& \mathrm{R}=\alpha Z_0=20 \times 10^{-3} \times 60=1.2 \Omega / \mathrm{m} \\\)
\(& G=\frac{\alpha}{Z_0}=\frac{20 \times 10^{-3}}{60}=0.333 \times 10^{-3} S / \mathrm{m} \\\)
\(& \nu=\frac{1}{\sqrt{L C}} \text { or } Z_0=\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}} \\\)
\(& C=\frac{1}{\nu Z_0}=\frac{1}{0.6 \times 3 \times 10^8 \times 60}=9.25 \times 10^{-11} \\\)
\(& L=\frac{Z_0}{\nu}=\frac{60}{0.6 \times 3 \times 10^8}=333 \mathrm{nH} / \mathrm{m} \\\)
\(& \mathbf{R}=1.2 \Omega / \mathrm{m}, \mathbf{L}=333 \mathrm{nH} / \mathrm{m} \\\)
\(& \mathbf{G}=333 \mu \mathrm{S} / \mathrm{m} \text { and } \mathrm{C}=92.5 \mathrm{pF} / \mathrm{m}\)
A distortion less transmission line has the following parameters:
characteristic impedance\($=60 \Omega$\), wave velocity \($=0.6 \mathrm{c}$\), where c is the speed of light in a vacuum,\($\alpha=20 \mathrm{mNp} / \mathrm{m}$\). The value of transmission line parameters R, L, G and C at \($100 \mathrm{MHz}$\) are respectively.
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Related Questions
Consider CO at 500 K and 1000 kPa at an initial state that expands to a final pressure of 200 kPa in an isentropic manner. Report the final temperature in units of K and using three significant digits.
Answers
Answer:
\(T_2=315.69k\)
Explanation:
Initial Temperature \(T_1=500K\)
Initial Pressure \(P_1=1000kPa\)
Final Pressure \(P_2=200kPa\)
Generally the gas equation is mathematically given by
\(\frac{T_2}{T_1}=\frac{P_2}{P_1}^{\frac{n-1}{n}}\)
Where
n for \(CO=1.4\)
Therefore
\(\frac{T_2}{500}=\frac{200}{1000}^{\frac{1.4-1}{1.4}}\)
\(T_2=315.69k\)
What is the different between isometric view and isometric projection
Answers
Answer:
All the dimensions in the isometric drawing are actual while when in the Isometric projection due to this it has to be the isometric scale is to be used.
4. a. A family purchased a 3 acre piece of land in Limuru for Kshs.30,000,000.00 fifteen years ago. They planted trees at a cost of Kshs.250,000.00 per acre. Each year they have been spending on average Kshs.25,000.00 per acre per month to take care of the trees and also to secure the property. They are now considering selling it. What is the minimum amount they should accept so as not to incur a loss bearing in mind that comparable properties have been yielding a rate of 6.5% interest per annum? (8 marks)
b. “Compulsory acquisition is the power of government to acquire private rights in land for public good without the willing consent of the owner but; in exchange for compensation”. Discuss this statement with special reference to the main considerations that ought to be made in conducting a valuation for compulsory acquisition. (12 marks)
Answers
The family should accept a minimum of Kshs.42,250,000.00 to avoid incurring a loss.
Why should they accept this amount and why?To obtain the total cost, the expenses for the land, trees and upkeep are summed up and subsequently reduced by 6. 5% using a discount rate.
Hence, it can be seen that a forced acquisition appraisal primarily focuses on three key factors: the land's market value, the expenses involved in replacing the property, and the potential harm caused to the owner's belongings.
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environmentalists oppose the mining of antarctic mineral resources because
a) territorial claims to Antarctica are unresolved
b) the existence of valuable mineral deposits in the antarctic environment is unlikely
c) the antarctic environment is fragile and extremely vulnerable to the disturbances that would accompany development
d) currently known world reserves of important metals and oils are considered inexhaustible
Answers
The ecosystem in Antarctica is delicate and highly susceptible to changes brought on by development. Environmentalists are primarily opposed to mining Antarctic mineral resources.
Why do environmentalists oppose mining for minerals in Antarctica?With the industrialization of more countries around the world, the demand for minerals is predicted to decrease. The Antarctic ecology is delicate and highly susceptible to disturbance brought on by industrialization.
What danger does mining pose to Antarctica?The weather, ice, and isolation of Antarctica from any industrialised areas make mineral mining very risky and expensive. The icebergs that drift around the continent frequently plough billion (or trillion) tonne ploughs into the ocean floor.
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8. The sugar content in a one-cup serving of a certain breakfast cereal was measured for a sample of 140 servings. The average was 11.9 g and the standard deviation was 1.1 g. a. Find a 95% confidence interval for the mean sugar content. b. Find a 99% confidence interval for the mean sugar content c. What is the confidence level of the interval (11.81, 11.99)?
Answers
(a) Confidence Interval ≈ (11.72, 12.08). (b) Confidence Interval ≈ (11.64, 12.16) and (c) The confidence level of the interval is at least 95%.
To find the confidence intervals for the mean sugar content, we can use the formula:
Confidence Interval = Sample Mean ± (Critical Value * Standard Error)
where the critical value is based on the desired confidence level and the standard error is calculated as the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
a. 95% confidence interval:
The critical value for a 95% confidence level is approximately 1.96.
Standard Error = 1.1 / sqrt(140) ≈ 0.093
Confidence Interval = 11.9 ± (1.96 * 0.093)
Confidence Interval ≈ (11.72, 12.08)
b. 99% confidence interval:
The critical value for a 99% confidence level is approximately 2.58.
Standard Error = 1.1 / sqrt(140) ≈ 0.093
Confidence Interval = 11.9 ± (2.58 * 0.093)
Confidence Interval ≈ (11.64, 12.16)
c. The given interval is (11.81, 11.99). This interval falls entirely within the 95% confidence interval calculated in part a. Therefore, the confidence level of the interval is at least 95%.
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when conducting an independent samples t-test, the samples need not have the same number of data points.
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The samples need not have the same number of data points when conducting an independent samples t-test. However, sample size affects the power and accuracy of the test.
An independent samples t-test is used to compare two different groups of data to determine if there is a significant difference between their means. When conducting an independent samples t-test, it is not necessary for the samples to have the same number of data points. The samples can be of different sizes, and the t-test will still work properly. However, it's important to note that the sample size can affect the power and accuracy of the test.
A larger sample size generally results in a more accurate and powerful test because it reduces the effect of random variation in the data. On the other hand, smaller sample sizes may lead to less precise results, which can make it more difficult to determine if there is a significant difference between the means. Therefore, it's important to consider the sample size when conducting an independent samples t-test to ensure accurate results.
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An input gear has 55 teeth and the output gear has 25 teeth. What is the gear ratio of these gears? Which gear turns faster and how much faster is it compared to the other gear?
Answers
An input gear has 55 teeth and the output gear has 25 teeth. The gear ratio of these gears is 2.2:1.
By dividing the number of teeth on the driven gear (output gear) by the number of teeth on the driving gear, the gear ratio can be calculated (input gear). The driven gear in this instance has 25 teeth, while the driving gear has 55 teeth, resulting in the following gear ratio:
For calculating gear ratio, divide by the number of teeth on the driving gear.
25/55 is the gear ratio.
45% or a gear ratio of 0.45
In a gear reduction system, the output gear rotates more quickly than the input gear. The gear ratio determines the speed differential between the gears. In this instance, the output gear has a gear ratio of 0.45, which indicates that it rotates 1/0.45 times faster than the input gear. output gear with 25 teeth turns faster, and it is 2.2 times faster than the input gear with 55 teeth.
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The gear ratio of these gears is 2.2:1 . The output gear turns faster than the input gear, and it turns 54.55% faster than the input gear.
To solve this problem, we need to know the gear ratio and which gear turns faster.
We can start by finding the gear ratio.
An input gear has 55 teeth and the output gear has 25 teeth.
What is the gear ratio of these gears?
The gear ratio is the ratio of the number of teeth on the input gear to the number of teeth on the output gear. Therefore, the gear ratio is:
Gear Ratio = Number of Teeth on Input Gear/Number of Teeth on Output Gear
Gear Ratio = 55/25
Gear Ratio = 2.2:1
This means that the input gear rotates 2.2 times for each rotation of the output gear.
Which gear turns faster and how much faster is it compared to the other gear?
The gear that turns faster is the output gear, which has fewer teeth.
To determine how much faster it turns, we can use the gear ratio.
The gear ratio tells us that the input gear turns 2.2 times for each rotation of the output gear.
Therefore, the output gear turns 2.2 times faster than the input gear.
To calculate how much faster the output gear is turning, we can use the following formula:
Speed Ratio = Output Gear Teeth/Input Gear Teeth
Speed Ratio = 25/55
Speed Ratio = 0.4545
This tells us that the output gear turns at 45.45% of the speed of the input gear, or 54.55% faster than the input gear.
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What should you do if you encounter a fishing boat while out in your vessel?.
Answers
Answer:
if you encounter fishing or hunting boats while you are paddling, be courteous.
Give them a wide berth.
Never run overfishing lines. Be aware that anglers may have lines out to the sides of their boat or trolling behind them.
Explanation:
A large retirement community wants to host a grand birthday party for its residents who recently
became centenarians (a centenarian is someone who has lived 100 years). The party organizers learn
that 25 new centenarians will be the guests of honor at the party, so they decide to prepare some
interesting facts about this group's age. They start brainstorming, and one of the organizers says,
"Hey, the standard deviation of their ages would be an interesting fact."
Which of the following best represents the standard deviation for the ages of the new centenarians?
Answers
The ideal response for the age standard deviation would be zero.
Why is there a standard deviation?A standard deviation (or σ) is a measure of how distributed the data is in reference to the mean. When the standard deviation is low, the data are concentrated around the mean, and when it is large, the data are widely dispersed.
They invited 25 persons who recently turned 100 years old, so the majority of attendees will be between the ages of 100 and 102. There is extremely little likelihood that anyone will be older than 102.
Since the majority of the data are centered at 100, the standard deviation will be zero or very close to it.
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Which of the following best represents the standard deviation for the ages of the new centenarians?
0
100
30
25
Deformation of a semicrystalline polymer by drawing produces which of the following?
[A]Decrease in strength in the direction of drawing
[B]Increase in strength perpendicular to the direction of drawing
[C]Decrease in strength perpendicular to the direction of drawing
[D]Increase in strength in the direction of drawing
Answers
The correct answer is: Deformation of a semicrystalline polymer by drawing produces Increase in strength in the direction of drawing.
When a semicrystalline polymer is subjected to the process of drawing, which involves stretching or elongating the material in a specific direction, it results in an increase in strength along the direction of drawing. This increase in strength is primarily due to the alignment and orientation of the polymer chains.
During drawing, the polymer chains are aligned and stretched in the direction of the applied force. This alignment leads to a more ordered and crystalline structure along the drawing direction. The increased crystallinity and alignment of polymer chains contribute to enhanced intermolecular interactions, resulting in improved mechanical properties, including strength, in the direction of drawing.
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A golfer and her caddy see lightning nearby. the golfer is about to take his shot with a metal club, while her caddy is holding a plastic handled umbrella. which person is at greater risk? Explain why?
Answers
Answer:
The golfer is at greater risk.
Explanation:
The golfer is holding a metal club. Metal is a good conductor for electricity (lightning), meaning electrons can pass through easily. Her caddy is at lesser risk because she is holding a plastic handled umbrella. Plastic is an insulator, which does not easily allow the movement of electrons to pass.
generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and
Answers
the engine is allowed to cool down completely before attempting to remove the turbine engine igniter plug.
This is done to ensure that the electrical power to the igniter system is completely disconnected and there is no residual electrical charge that could pose a safety hazard to the technician.
Additionally, it is important to follow proper safety protocols and guidelines provided by the engine manufacturer or maintenance manual. These guidelines may include wearing appropriate personal protective equipment, using insulated tools, and following step-by-step procedures for plug removal to minimize the risk of electric shock or other potential hazards.
It is always recommended to consult the specific engine's maintenance manual or seek guidance from a qualified professional for accurate and detailed instructions on removing turbine engine igniter plugs to ensure safety and proper maintenance procedures are followed.
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20 points and brainliest is it A, B, C, D
Using your Greek roots and context clues, figure out the meaning of “fissures” in this sentence and select the best definition:
“Look at these recent fissures in the granite roof”
A. an opening made by splitting
B. a crack made from crushing
C. a line made from evaporation
D. a line made from sediment deposits
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Fig_Q5
6. A steel rod is stressed by a tension force of 250 N. It is found that the rod has length of 45
m and diameter of 1.5 mm. If the modulus of elasticity of the steel rod is assumed as 2 x 105
MPa, determine the strain of the steel rod due to the applied force.
Answers
Answer:
The strain of the steel rod due to the applied force is 41.93
Explanation:
Modulus of elasticity is equal to stress divided by strain.
And stress is equal to force divided by area
Surface area of cylindrical rod
\(2\pi r (r+h)\)
Substituting the given values we get -
\(2 *3.14 * \frac{1.5}{1000} * 45 (45 + \frac{1.5}{1000}) = 19.07\)
\(2 * 10 ^5 = \frac{250}{19.07 * S=(\frac{\Delta L}{L} )}\)
Hence, strain is equal to
Strain = 41.93
The grinder has a force of 400 N in the direction shown at the bottom. The grinder has a mass of 300 kg with center of mass at G. The wheel at B is free to move (no friction). Determine the force in the hydraulic cylinder DF. Express in newtons below.
Answers
The resultant force in the hydraulic cylinder DF can be determined by considering the equilibrium of forces and moments acting on the grinder.
A detailed explanation requires a clear understanding of the principles of statics and dynamics. First, we need to identify all forces acting on the grinder: gravitational force, which is the product of mass and acceleration due to gravity (300 kg * 9.8 m/s^2), force due to the grinder (400 N), and force in the hydraulic cylinder DF. Assuming the system is in equilibrium (i.e., sum of all forces and moments equals zero), we can create equations based on the force equilibrium in vertical and horizontal directions and the moment equilibrium around a suitable point, typically point G. Solving these equations gives us the force in the hydraulic cylinder DF.
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which of the following statements are true regarding elastic deformation? (3 answers are correct) group of answer choices emptying and filling a reservoir would result in elastic deformation of the crust fold structures are the result of elastic deformation isostatic uplift following deglaciation represents elastic deformation stress and strain are proportional stress and strain are not proportional
Answers
The correct statements are 2, 3 and 5. Elastic deformation is a temporary deformation of a material. When a force is applied to a material, it will deform, and the amount of deformation will be proportional to the force applied.
Elastic deformation refers to the reversible deformation of a material when a force is applied and it is released. When the load is removed, the material will return to its original shape. Elastic deformation is characterized by its capability to withstand stress without causing any permanent change in the shape of the material or its molecular structure. The following are the correct statements regarding elastic deformation: Stress and strain are proportional; hence, when stress is applied, the deformation or strain is proportional to the stress. Isostatic uplift following deglaciation represents elastic deformation. This statement is correct. Fold structures are the result of elastic deformation. This statement is correct.
Therefore, If the force is removed, the material will return to its original state. The explanation for elastic deformation is that the stress and strain are proportional, and the deformation will not cause any permanent change in the shape or molecular structure of the material.
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QUESTION:
Which statement is true about portable fire extinguishers?
POSSIBLE ANSWERS:
OAir-pressurized water extinguishers put out electrical fires.
Dry chemical, sodium bicarbonate extinguishers put out most fires.
Dry chemical, mono ammonium phosphate extinguishers put out flammable liquid fires.
OCarbon dioxide extinguishers put out wood fires.
Submit Answer
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Review/Edit Your Answer
Answers
Until emergency assistance arrives, portable fire extinguishers can put out or manage a fire.
When should Portable fire extinguishers be used?The use of portable fire extinguishers can put out or contain a fire until emergency assistance is received.
Utilize portable units exclusively for small flames or fires that are still in the early stages because their discharge times are often only a few seconds. Make a plan for a getaway. Avoid breathing in the extinguishing agent and smoke by keeping low to the ground.
Only use a portable fire extinguisher when a fire is small, restricted to a single area, and not made up of extremely flammable materials. If the fire becomes out of control, leave the premises right away and get assistance.
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trevor moves a magnetic toy train away from a magnet that cannot move. what happens to the potential energy in the system of magnets during the movement?
Answers
Answer:a
Ieieksdjd snsnsnsnsksks
Why do the quadrants in coordinate plane go anti-clockwise?.
Answers
Answer:
Quadrants are counter-clockwise because angles are measured counter-clockwise; and angles are measured counter-clockwise so that Cross Product of unit vector in X direction with that in the Y direction has to be the unit vector in the Z direction (coming towards us from the origin).
Explanation:
non-BIBO are never used in practice. True/false
Answers
Application: Assume a small
spacecraft is in open space.
One panel is a dedicated
radiator (dimensions in
image) and is painted with
S13 GLO white paint
(emissivity = .89). If the
radiator is at 30C and has a
full view factor to space, how
much heat can it reject from
the system? (How much is
this radiator radiating to
space?). Use 3K for space
temperature. Round answer
up to one decimal place. No
need to include units.
*.../2
1 m
Radiator
.3 m
Answers
The amount of radiation that the system is radiating into space is 1.164 x 10¹⁷. See the explanation below.
What is radiation?Rockets or space crafts emit heat as they navigate into space. This heat or emissions is what is referred to as radiation.
What is the calculation supporting the answer above?Recall that we are given the following:
Thus,
Converting the temperature of the Radiator, we have:
30°C = 273 + 30
= 303K
Area of the Panel of the radiator = 0.3 x 0.1
= 0.03
The formula for the heat emitted by the system is given as:
Q = ∈δA (T₁⁴ - T₁⁴)
Where:
δ = Stefan - Bolta Mann constant
→ δ = 5.67 X 10⁻ⁿ
→ The amount of heat is thus given as:
Q = 0.89 x 5.17 x 10⁸ [ (303)⁴ - (3)⁴] x 0.03
Therefore,
Q = 1.1635158780036 × 10¹⁷
Q ≈ 1.164 x 10¹⁷
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Given an int variable strawsoncamel, write a statement that uses the increment operator to increase the value of that variable by 1.
Answers
Given an int variable strawsoncamel, a statement that uses the increment operator to increase the value of that variable by 1 is; strawsOnCamel++;
How to Write Increment in JavaScript?
When talking about Increment of an int variable in Java, we know that;
There are two ways to use the increment operator; prefix and postfix increment. The prefix increment looks like ++variablename; while the postfix increment looks like variablename++; . Both of these operations add one to the value in the variable. The difference between the two is the order of how it works.
Now, write a statement that uses the increment operator to increase the value of that variable by 1. Thus, we will make use of the postfix increment to get;
strawsOnCamel++;
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What is the uppermost part of the tree referred to as?
Answers
Answer:
canopy I believe it is called
Answer:
Canopy
Explanation:
The canopy of a tree is sometimes also called its “crown.” This part of the tree is the uppermost part, made up of branches, stems, and leaves for a deciduous tree. ... For evergreen trees, the canopy would include the branches, stems, and needles.
Mr. and Ms. Boren have two children, John and Jane. When eating out they will go to a restaurant that serves only hamburgers or one that serves only chicken. Before going out, the family votes to decide on the restaurant. The majority wins, except when Mom and Dad agree, and in that case, they win. Any other tie votes produce a trip to the chicken restaurant.
Required:
Design a logic circuit that will automatically select the restaurant when everyone votes.
Answers
Explanation:
The logic is captured in the Karnaugh map of the first attachment. M and D refer to Mom and Dad, respectively, and A and B refer to the children. A logic 1 is a vote for Chicken, 0 is a vote for Hamburger.
The logic in attachment 2 shows an implementation using And and Or gates. The effective equation is ...
chicken = (m·d) + (m+d)·(a+b)
The logic in attachment 3 shows an implementation using an 8-input selector. The dots at the inputs represent inversion, so those inputs to the selector represent a logic 1 (chicken).
how many packages are exchanged in each of the following processes, and explain how they work: a) tcp establishment b) tcp tear down
Answers
a) SYN, SYN-ACK, and ACK are the three steps taken during the exchange of these four flags.
b) By using the FIN bit in the TCP Flags, a TCP connection can be terminated. A packet with the TCP Finished flag set is sent by one side of the connection.
One of the key Internet protocol suite protocols is the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). It was first used in the initial network implementation to support the Internet Protocol (IP). As a result, TCP/IP is the name given to the full suite. Between programs operating on hosts interacting over an IP network, TCP offers dependable, organized, and error-checked transmission of a stream of octets (bytes). TCP, which is a component of the TCP/IP suite's Transport Layer, is essential to many important internet applications, including the World Wide Web, email, remote administration, and file transfer. Often, TCP is layered with SSL/TLS. Since TCP connection is oriented, a connection must first be made between the client and the server in order to send data.
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EXERCISE 53-8 \diamond MLA documentation To read about MLA documentation, see 53 and 54 in The Bedford Handbook, Eighth Edition. Write "true" if the statement is true or "false" if it is false.
Answers
The given exercise statement is true. MLA stands for Modern Language Association, and the Modern Language Association is responsible for developing the MLA writing style guidelines.
This particular style is used primarily in the humanities field. MLA documentation style is used to provide proper citations to the works and ideas of others.
MLA documentation is used in research papers and essays to indicate the source of a quoted or paraphrased text. MLA documentation provides accurate information about the author, the title, the date of publication, and the publisher.
The rules of MLA documentation are contained in the MLA Handbook for Writers of Research Papers and The Bedford Handbook.
The Bedford Handbook is the preferred handbook for many instructors who use the MLA documentation style.
The given exercise statement is true.
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semiconductors are materials that are neither good conductors nor good insulators
T/F
Answers
True. Semiconductors are materials that have a conductivity between that of a conductor and an insulator. They have a band gap that is smaller than that of an insulator but larger than that of a conductor.
This means that they can conduct electricity under certain conditions but not as well as a metal conductor. The conductivity of a semiconductor can be increased by adding impurities, a process called doping. This is important in the manufacturing of electronic devices such as transistors and diodes. In summary, semiconductors are a critical component of modern electronics and are neither good conductors nor good insulators.
Good conductors, like metals, allow electric current to flow easily due to their high number of free electrons. In contrast, good insulators, like glass or rubber, prevent the flow of electric current because they have very few or no free electrons. Semiconductors have a moderate number of free electrons and can be controlled to either conduct or insulate electric current, making them versatile for various applications.
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A compressible fluid flows through a compressor that increases the density from 1 kg/m3 to 5 kg/m3. The cross-sectional area of the inlet pipe is 3 m2 and that of the discharge pipe is 1 m2. The relation between the discharge volume flow rate and the inlet volume flow rate is
Answers
Answer:
The relation between the discharge volume flow rate and the inlet volume flow rate is \(\frac{1}{5}\).
Explanation:
No matter if fluid is compressible or not, mass throughout compressor, a device that works at steady state, must be conserved according to Principle of Mass Conservation:
\(\dot m_{in}-\dot m_{out} = 0\) (Eq. 1)
Where \(\dot m_{in}\) and \(\dot m_{out}\) are mass flows at inlet and outlet, measured in kilograms per second.
After applying Dimensional analysis, we expand the equation above as follows:
\(\rho_{in}\cdot \dot V_{in} - \rho_{out}\cdot \dot V_{out} = 0\) (Eq. 2)
Where:
\(\rho_{in}\), \(\rho_{out}\) - Fluid densities at inlet and outlet, measured in kilograms per cubic meter.
\(\dot V_{in}\), \(\dot V_{out}\) - Volume flow rates at inlet and outlet, measured in cubic meters per second.
After some algebraic handling, we find the following relationship:
\(\rho_{out}\cdot \dot V_{out} = \rho_{in}\cdot \dot V_{in}\)
\(\frac{\dot V_{out}}{V_{in}} = \frac{\rho_{in}}{\rho_{out}}\) (Eq. 3)
If we know that \(\rho_{in} = 1\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}\) and \(\rho_{out} = 5\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}\), then the relation between the discharge volume flow rate and the inlet volume flow rate is:
\(\frac{\dot V_{out}}{\dot V_{in}} = \frac{1\,\frac{kg}{m^{2}} }{5\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} }\)
\(\frac{\dot V_{out}}{\dot V_{in}} = \frac{1}{5}\)
The relation between the discharge volume flow rate and the inlet volume flow rate is \(\frac{1}{5}\).
There is an AC series circuit that is constructed of a 150.0-ohm resistor along with 300.0 ohm inductive reactance and 200.0 ohm capacitive reactance. What is the difference in phase between the current and resistor voltage of the circuit
Answers
Answer:
0°
Explanation:
The resistor voltage has the same phase as the circuit current. There is no phase difference.
Answer:
0° (zero degree)Explanation:
the difference in pjase between the current and resistor voltage of the given 150.0 ohm, 300.0 ohm and 200.0 ohmhow permit to work is used and its importance in adhering
to the principles of HSE in an oil and gas environment
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Answer:
These formal systems state exactly what work is to be done, where and when. In many organisations, people doing the actual work are required to sign a permit to work document to confirm that they have understood all processes and guidelines of the system. Permits also serve as a means of communication between site workers and the organisation’s management.
However, they should not be mistaken as a replacement for robust risk assessment, which should happen simultaneously. Having a permit to work systems as part of organisational operations reduces the risks of losses or damage due to unsafe activities in a non-trivial work atmosphere.
These systems ensure that the correct jobs are entrusted to appropriate individuals and review or audit of conditions are also undertaken by experts or authorised personnel who have proven capabilities of undertaking the respective responsibilities. Permit to work systems also confirms that work is completed safely and the workplace is restored to its safe, original form for normal operations to commence.