A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Whichof the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?a. Potassium 4.2 mEq/Lb. WBC count 5,000 mm3c. Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dLd. Hct 44%

Answers

Answer 1

WBC count 5,000 mm3c is the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider.

When a client is taking amitriptyline, it is important for the nurse to review the laboratory results to ensure that the medication is not causing any adverse effects. One of the laboratory values that the nurse should report to the provider is the WBC count.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause agranulocytosis, which is a severe reduction in the WBC count. A low WBC count increases the risk of infection and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's WBC count regularly.
Although the other laboratory values are important, they are not directly related to the medication or the client's current condition. The potassium level, total bilirubin level, and Hct are within normal limits and do not require immediate intervention.
In summary, the nurse should report a low WBC count to the provider when reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking amitriptyline. It is essential to monitor the client's WBC count regularly to prevent any adverse effects.

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Related Questions

Can a nurse examine an under age child of the opposite gender without the parents?

Answers

Answer:

If the child is in need of imidate care then yes the nurse can examine the child

proffecionally but if it is a normal check-up than it is okay for the nurse to examine again profescionally but the child can ask for a same sex nurse if they feel uncomfortable

Explanation:

if it is life or death it is more important to help the child but if not than it is normal to ask for a same sex nurse because the situation is less hectic and can be worked around to make the patient feel more open to talk about their health but no matter life or death some parents will want their child to be examined with the same sex nurse/doctor so the answer should be yes but could aslo be depends on the situations

It is up to both the child and parents. Of old enough, the child can say they’d like to be alone

How does mucus help protect us from infection?

Answers

Mucus is our body's equivalent to fly paper, it lines the nose trapping the dirt and germs stopping them from damaging the lungs. But it does better than just sticking to them – mucus is loaded with protective proteins that kill and disable germs, like bacteria and viruses.

Answer:

Mucus is sticky and stops dust and other debris from getting in through the nose when you inhale. In the lungs, it stop traps debris on its way to the lungs, where it is moved out of the lungs by cilia to be then swallowed into the stomach or spat out.

some nonprescription medicated products have lower doses of active ingredients and meet the definition of both cosmetics and drugs
T/F

Answers

The statement is True. Certain skincare products and topical therapies with low active component concentrations can be considered cosmetics and medicines.

Cosmetics and pharmaceuticals differ by purpose and claims. Cosmetics clean, beautify, and alter the appearance, while medications diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent diseases. Nonprescription medications can be both. A face wash or acne cleanser with a lesser concentration of salicylic acid or benzoyl peroxide may be cosmetic. These products purify and enhance skin look. The same product can be a medicine if it claims to treat or prevent acne. In such circumstances, the product may need additional regulatory standards and testing to validate its claims. Manufacturers must follow regulations and identify their items correctly. Read product labeling and consult healthcare specialists before using nonprescription medicated items.

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An outbreak of salmonellosis occurred after an epidemiology department luncheon, which was attended by 485 faculty and staff. Assume everyone ate the same food items. Sixty-five people had fever and diarrhea; five of these people were severely affected. Subsequent laboratory tests on everyone who attended the luncheon revealed an additional 72 cases. Foods served at the luncheon included home-canned olives, chicken salad, homemade flavored drink mix, freshly baked rolls, and raw vegetables. Based on your understanding of foods that potentially are capable of transmitting salmonella, the most likely source of the outbreak was:

Answers

Answer:

Raw vegetables could possibly be the cause.

Explanation:

Raw fruits and vegetables can be potentially transmittable foods for salmonellosis; it is especially dangerous when raw vegetables are not properly disinfected, so it is important to wash them with drinking water and carry out an adequate disinfection process.

To prepare the chicken salad, the chicken was possibly previously cooked.

Answer:

137/137+348 = 28.2%

Explanation:

PLEASE HELP ! Match the mental health care professional to the description provided.

PLEASE HELP ! Match the mental health care professional to the description provided.

Answers

thepist - animee

psychiatrist - gayle

psychgist - jamal

psyclatric- zhang

Jamal is a clinician who’s providing medication therapy to a patient. Of the four types mental health professionals listed here, Jamal is most likely the psychiatrist. Psychiatrists are medical doctors who diagnose and treat mental illness through a biomedical lens, taking into account the patient’s physical health. As medical doctors, psychiatrists can prescribe medications and other treatments without restriction.

Aimee has a rather broad job description, but the fact that she works with registered nurses in a supportive role strongly suggests that Aimee is the psychiatric technician.

Zhang provides and leads therapeutic counseling sessions, which is, again, a broad job description. Certainly, this would be something a therapist does. Without further information and using the process of elimination, it is most likely that Zhang is the therapist.

Gayle has a research doctorate in psychology, and we are told that she conducts academic research. From the fact that she has a Ph.D. in psychology alone, we could say that she’s the psychologist. While there are psychologists who do treat patients, psychologists generally do not (and in most jurisdictions, are not allowed to) use medication therapy. In any case, it’s a safe bet to say that Gayle is the psychologist.

For which clients would a nurse use an intravenous (iv) pump to administer their iv fluids? select all that apply

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A nurse would typically use an intravenous (IV) pump to administer IV fluids for clients who require precise control of the rate and volume of the infusion. This may include clients who:

Require medications or fluids that need to be infused at a specific rate

Have conditions that require careful monitoring of fluid intake and output, such as renal or cardiac disease

Are at risk of fluid overload or dehydration

Require frequent changes in the rate or volume of the infusion, such as in critical care settings

Are receiving parenteral nutrition, which requires careful monitoring of the composition, volume, and rate of infusion.

An IV pump delivers fluids and medications at a specific rate, which can be adjusted as needed. The pump can also alert the nurse to any changes in the flow rate, occlusion, or other issues that may affect the infusion. By using an IV pump, the nurse can help ensure that the client receives the correct amount of fluids and medications at the right rate, which can help improve outcomes and prevent complications.

To help ensure team well-being, CERT leaders may:
A Prevent volunteers from taking breaks
B Gradually phase out workers from high-stress to low-stress jobs
C Ask survivors to help hand out water
D Work for days without a nap

Answers

Answer:

deez

Explanation:

In the initial evaluation of a child with newly diagnosed hypertension, which of the following evaluations will help rule in the most common etiology? a) chest radiography b) electrocardiogram c) renal ultrasonography d) serum uric acid e) urinalysis

Answers

In the initial evaluation of a child with newly diagnosed hypertension, renal ultrasonography is the evaluation that will help rule in the most common etiology.

Among the given options, renal ultrasonography (choice c) is the most appropriate evaluation to help identify the most common etiology of hypertension in a child. The most common cause of hypertension in children is renal parenchymal disease, which includes conditions like renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. Renal ultrasonography allows visualization of the kidneys and can help identify structural abnormalities or renal artery abnormalities that could be responsible for the hypertension.

The other options provided (chest radiography, electrocardiogram, serum uric acid, and urinalysis) may provide valuable information but are less likely to specifically identify the most common etiology of hypertension in a child. Chest radiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac size and ruling out pulmonary causes of hypertension. An electrocardiogram can provide information about cardiac function and identify signs of left ventricular hypertrophy. Serum uric acid levels and urinalysis may indicate underlying kidney dysfunction, but they are less specific for identifying the common causes of hypertension in children. Therefore, renal ultrasonography is the most appropriate evaluation to help rule in the most common etiology of newly diagnosed hypertension in a child.

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According to the uid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane Select one: a. Phospholipids form a double layer, with the hydrophilic heads facing each other in the center. B. The membrane is a rigid structure. c. Proteins are free to move within a double layer of phospholipids. d. Protein and phospholipids form a regular, repeating structure.

Answers

Answer:

c. Proteins are free to move within a double layer of phospholipids.

Explanation:

According to the fluid mosaic model, proteins and phospholipids can move laterally and rotate in their place. This is one of the characteristics of the fluid mosaic model. The fluidity of the membrane's components depends on factors such as temperature, the presence of cholesterol, and if the fatty acid chains of the phospholipids are saturated or not.

Stress is more about the environment than it is about the perception of the stressors.
True
False

Answers

False. Stress is more about the perception of the stressors than it is about the environment. Stress is a response to a perceived threat or challenge, and different people can perceive the same situation in different ways. Therefore, it is important to focus on managing one's perception and response to stressors, rather than trying to eliminate all stress from the environment.

Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.

Answers

Answer:

sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants

Explanation:

Which cell/organ involved in the regulation of blood glucose homeostasis would havethe greatest effect on if removed?

Answers

Answer:

The liver

Explanation:

The liver plays a major role in blood glucose homeostasis by maintaining a balance between the uptake and storage of glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. The liver is the primary organ for glucose metabolism. About 90% of all circulating glucose not derived directly from the diet comes from the liver.

Who is responsible for safe handling of the animal product once they get it home?

Answers

Answer:

The purchaser is the one responsible for handling the animal product once they get it home

Answer:

It is the responsibility of the purchaser to properly handle raw meat once they get it home. Improper handling and cooking methods can result in food poisoning and other ailments. If the animal is live, it is still the purchasers job to take care of it.

Explanation:

Have a wonderful day and please mark me brainliest!

Before applying dry heat or cold applications what do you do

Answers

Answer:

Cover dry heat or cold applications before applying them. Use a flannel cover, towel, or other cover as directed. Use a flannel cover, towel, or other cover as directed. •Provide for privacy.

patient is prescribed 0.8 micrograms levothyroxine per kilogram q 12 hours. patient weight is 92 kilograms. how much medication should patient be given

Answers

The medicine that the patient should be given is 0.0368 mg in one dose, and the total dose for the day is 0.736 mg.

What is medication?

Medication is a process where the patient is given a calculated amount of medicines to treat the problem. Medication can be for a day or for months and years.

The patient has been prescribed levothyroxine 0.8 mg per 12 hours, which means twice per day.

So it can be calculated as:

0.8 x 92 / 100 = 0.736. The total dose.

Now divide it by 2

0.736 / = 0.368, one dose of the day.

Thus, the patient should be given 0.0368 mg in one dose, and the total dose for the day is 0.736 mg.

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Answer:147.2

Explanation:

a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:

Answers

According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.

What do doctors do for tachycardia?

A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.

What causes tachycardia most frequently?

Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.

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What is the medical assistants role in contributing to the efforts of the health care team in the area of managed care

Answers

The medical assistant helps by explaining the terminologies they use to the patients in clear language.

Who is a medical assistant?

The term medical assistant refers to those trained personnel at the hospital that helps a doctor to discharge his duties. They perform minor tasks such as taking vital signs etc.

The roe of the medical assistant in contributing to the efforts of the health care team in the area of managed care is to assistants the doctors and nurses by explaining the terminologies they use to the patients in clear language.

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Which best describes the term donning?

Answers

Answer:

Act of placing an item

Explanation:

verb (used with object), donned, don·ning.

to put on or dress in: to don one's clothes.

which of the following foods is naturally a good source of high-quality protein?
A. Leaf lettuce
B. Red grapes
C. Corn oil margarine
D. Tuna fish

Answers

The answer to the question is D, Tuna fish. Tuna fish is an excellent source of high-quality protein and is a popular choice among health-conscious individuals. It is a type of fish that is rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are essential for maintaining good health.

These fatty acids play a crucial role in reducing inflammation in the body, improving heart health, and reducing the risk of chronic diseases. One serving of tuna fish (3 ounces) contains approximately 20 grams of protein, making it an excellent choice for those looking to increase their protein intake. In addition to protein, tuna fish is also a good source of vitamins and minerals, including vitamin D, vitamin B12, and selenium. These nutrients are important for maintaining a healthy immune system, promoting healthy bones, and supporting brain function. In contrast, leaf lettuce and red grapes are not good sources of protein and are primarily composed of carbohydrates and fiber. Corn oil margarine is also not a good source of protein and is high in unhealthy fats, which can increase the risk of heart disease. Therefore, if you are looking for a good source of high-quality protein, it is best to choose foods such as tuna fish, lean meats, eggs, and legumes.

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A woman experiences the loss of a very early term pregnancy. Her
friends do not mention the loss, and someone suggests to her that
she can "always try again." The woman feels confusion over her
sadness and stops talking about it with others. Which type of grief
response is this patient most likely experiencing?

Answers

Answer:

Disenfranchised

Explanation:

I am pretty sure it is disenfranchised. In mental health disenfranchised means distracting feelings of loneliness. The woman stops talking because her friends don't get what she is going through.

that is my thought process.

antiviral medications help _____ the flu and vaccines help _________ the flu.

Answers

Antiviral medications help treat the flu and vaccines help prevent the flu.

What does the antiviral medication do?

Antiviral medications can help your immune system fight back by helping stop the virus from multiplying in your body. This lowers the amount of virus in your body with the goal of you having less severe symptoms and recovering more quickly.

What is an antiviral drug and how does it differ from a vaccine?

The main differentiation between antivirals and vaccinations is that a vaccine stops a virus from invading your body by giving protection, whereas antivirals treat a virus that has already infiltrated your body by delaying the infection process.

What are antivirals used for?

Antiviral medications help your body fight off viruses that cause disease. They can reduce the symptoms of your viral infection and shorten the length of your illness. In most cases, viruses clear up without these drugs.

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Which term is an alternate name for the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome (ars) ?
A. Manifest illness period.
B. Latent period.
C. Initial stage.
D. Recovery period.

Answers

The correct answer is C. Initial stage. The prodromal stage of Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS) is sometimes referred to as the initial stage.

It is the second stage of ARS and occurs shortly after exposure to high doses of ionizing radiation. During this stage, individuals may experience symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, fatigue, diarrhea, and other general malaise. These symptoms typically occur within hours to a few days after exposure and signal the onset of ARS.

The other options mentioned in the question are not synonymous with the prodromal stage of ARS. The manifest illness period refers to the stage when specific signs and symptoms of ARS become evident. The latent period is the period of time between radiation exposure and the onset of symptoms. The recovery period refers to the stage where individuals begin to recover and experience a reduction in symptoms after the manifest illness period.

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a patient hospitalized with a mood disorder has aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. a nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n):

Answers

A nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a mood stabilizer, the correct option is D.

A mood stabilizer is a medication commonly used to treat mood disorders such as bipolar disorder, which can cause symptoms of aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. Mood stabilizers, as the name suggests, help to stabilize the patient's mood, preventing extreme highs and lows that can lead to these symptoms.

Antipsychotics may be used in some cases, but they are typically reserved for severe manic or psychotic episodes. Anxiolytics are used to treat anxiety disorders and may not be effective in treating the symptoms described in the scenario, the correct option is D.

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The complete question is:

A patient hospitalized with a mood disorder has aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. A nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n):

A) Antipsychotic

B) Antidepressant

C) Anxiolytic

D) Mood Stabilizer

How many amnio acids are found in nature

Answers

Answer: its 500

The key elements of an amino acid are carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O), and nitrogen (N), although other elements are found in the side chains of certain amino acids. About 500 naturally occurring amino acids are known as of 1983 (though only 20 appear in the genetic code) and can be classified in many ways

The game starts when one person serves from anywhere behind the __________.
Group of answer choices

back row

sideline

baseline

anywhere

Answers

Answer:

baseline

Explanation:

l think hope that helps

Behind the baseline :)

A circular dartboard with a diameter of 24 inches has a circular bullseye at its center. The diameter of the target is 2 inches. If a poorly thrown dart is equally likely to hit anywhere on the dartboard, what is the probability of it hitting the target

Answers

The probability of hitting the target on a circular dartboard with a poorly thrown dart is 1/144 or approximately 0.0069. The target has a diameter of 2 inches, while the dartboard has a diameter of 24 inches.

To find the probability of hitting the target, we need to compare the area of the target to the area of the entire dartboard.

The area of a circle is calculated using the formula A = πr², where A is the area and r is the radius.

The radius of the dartboard is half of its diameter, which is 24 inches / 2 = 12 inches. So, the area of the dartboard is A_dartboard = π(12)² = 144π square inches.

The radius of the target is half of its diameter, which is 2 inches / 2 = 1 inch. So, the area of the target is A_target = π(1)² = π square inches.

To find the probability, we divide the area of the target by the area of the dartboard: P(hit target) = A_target / A_dartboard.

P(hit target) = π / 144π = 1 / 144.

Therefore, the probability of hitting the target with a poorly thrown dart is 1/144, or approximately 0.0069, which is a very small probability.

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a client comes to the emergency department because they think they are having a heart attack. further assessment determines that the client is not having a heart attack but is having a panic attack. when beginning to interview the client, which question would be most appropriate for a nurse to ask?

Answers

When beginning to interview a client who is having a panic attack, the nurse should first ask the client about their anxiety and try to understand the cause of their panic attack.

The first step for the nurse should be to verify the client's condition and ensure that they are safe.After the client has been stabilized, the nurse should begin the interview to understand the client's condition.The client should be interviewed in a quiet area where they can concentrate and respond to the nurse's inquiries. If possible, a family member or friend may be present to provide support and assist with the client's recollection of events that led up to the panic attack.

A panic attack is a sudden, overwhelming feeling of intense anxiety and fear that can last for several minutes. Common symptoms include shortness of breath, sweating, heart palpitations, trembling or shaking, and a sense of impending doom.

Panic attacks can occur without warning and may be caused by stressful situations, trauma, or underlying mental health conditions such as anxiety disorders.

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A baby's visual cortex is not fully developed at birth, taking about 2 to 4 months to develop to the point at which babies can use both eyes. Luckily, babies do not need both eyes in the womb because:

Answers

Babies do not need both eyes in the womb because nothing is far enough away to require focusing both eyes on it.

Babies' eyes begin to focus more easily on the faces of their parents or other people nearby. An infant's eyes are not properly coordinated during the first two months of life and may appear to wander or be crossed. This is quite common. Babies learn to focus one‘s vision, reach out, explore, as well as learn about the world around them during their first year.

Cognitive development, also known as brain development, refers to the process of learning memory, language, thinking, but also reasoning. The brain grows faster than any other organ during the first two years of life, accounting for about 25% of adult weight at birth and nearly 75% by age two. During this time, the brain circumference increases from 14 to 19 inches.

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Digestive system organs performs both mechanical and chemical digestion.

Answers

The mouth I do not remember the actual thing. But chewing is the mechanical work and the saliva is the chemical because it breaks down the food.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?

Answers

Blood entering the body from the veins may begin to back up when the right side of the heart becomes weak. Right-sided heart failure is what this is, and it frequently causes edema in the lower limbs.

What is the caring for a client with heart failure?

Left-sided heart failure is typically caused by cardiac attacks, chronic high blood pressure, or coronary artery disease (CAD). In most cases, advanced left-sided heart failure leads to the development of right-sided heart failure, which is then treated similarly.

Breathlessness while moving around or upon lying down. Weakness and exhaustion. Legs, ankles, and feet swelling irregular or fast heartbeat. When the heart muscle is not functioning normally, cardiac failure ensues.

Therefore, the fluid build-up sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure.

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