Nicole designs the hardware configuration of workstations that will be deployed to a newly formed company. She sets up the networking capabilities and policies that will govern the workstations when connected to the company network. What is her role in her company?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a Network Engineer (architect)

Explanation:

Indeed, as a Network Engineer, we would expect Nicole to be in charge of planning, setting up, and managing the software and hardware components of the computer networks so that they function as intended.

A Network Engineer therefore would be responsible for setting up the networking capabilities and policies that will govern the workstations when connected to the company network.


Related Questions

Who should inspect a crane?
1Employer
2Experience workers
3Foreman
4Competent person

Answers

Answer:

4. Competent person

Explanation:

A competent person should inspect the crane

OSHA regulations only require that such equipment be inspected during initial use and annually thereafter by a "competent person"

In a dispute between Cosmic Games Corporation and Mythic Engineering Associates, Inc., the court applies the doctrine of stare decisis. What is this doctrine? What does this doctrine have to do with the American legal system?

Answers

The doctrine of stare decisis is a legal principle that involves adhering to previous court decisions when deciding similar cases.

It is a fundamental aspect of the American legal system, promoting consistency, stability, and predictability in the interpretation and application of laws.

The doctrine of stare decisis, which means "to stand by things decided," is a concept in the legal system that requires courts to follow and adhere to previous decisions or precedents when deciding cases with similar facts or legal issues. It promotes stability and consistency in the interpretation and application of laws by ensuring that similar cases are treated similarly.

Under this doctrine, once a court has established a legal principle or precedent, it is generally binding on lower courts within the same jurisdiction. This means that judges are obligated to follow the reasoning and outcome of previous cases when faced with similar legal issues. However, stare decisis also allows for the possibility of overruling or departing from precedent in exceptional circumstances or when there is a compelling reason to do so.

In the American legal system, the doctrine of stare decisis plays a crucial role in providing predictability and stability in the law. It ensures that similar cases are treated consistently, and the decisions made by higher courts serve as guiding principles for lower courts. Stare decisis contributes to the development of legal principles, the preservation of legal precedents, and the overall integrity and fairness of the legal system.

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Q.13 In order to produce maximum starting torque in a split-phase motor, how many degrees out of phase should the start- and run-winding currents be with each other?
Select one:
A. 180°
B. 0°
C. 120°
D. 90°

Answers

Answer:

D. 90 degrees.

Explanation:

Torque is a rotational force which moves an object in other direction. There should be 90 degrees out of phase to start, run winding currents with each other. Torque is produced by the rotational motion of an object. The angle of the object must be 90 degrees set in order to create torque.

Estimate the heating energy requirements for a residential building using the degree-day method (a) in Denver, Colorado, and (b) in Little Rock, Arkansas. The overall heat loss coefficient is 400 Btu/h.oF and the furnace efficiency is 0.78.

Answers

Answer:

a) 600°F  days

b) 103°F  days

Explanation:

Given data :

overall heat loss coefficient = 400 Btu/h.oF

Furnace efficiency = 0.78

applying the degree- day method the heating energy requirement per day can be obtained by subtracting the average temperature for a particular day from the acceptable mid/balance point temperature

lets assume the mid/balance point temperature = 65°F

a) heating energy requirement in Denver Colorado

 we will have 600°F days  ; considering the  the average temperature - balance point temperature

= 665 - 65 = 600°F

b) heating energy requirement in Little Rock Arkansas

 we will have 103°  days

A building has a wall of windows that is 12 feet across. If a scale of 1:24 is used, how wide is the wall of windows on the drawing in inches?

Answers

Scale ratios are used to enlarge or compress an image.

The width of the wall on the drawing is \(\frac{1 }{2}\ inches\)

The scale is given as:

\(Scale = 1 :24\)

The scale ratio is represented as:

\(Scale = Drawing : Actual\)

So, we have:

\(Drawing : Actual = 1 :24\)

Substitute 12 for Actual

\(Drawing : 12 = 1 :24\)

Express as fraction

\(\frac{Drawing }{ 12} = \frac{1 }{24}\)

Multiply both sides by 12

\(12 \times \frac{Drawing }{ 12} = \frac{1 }{24} \times 12\)

\(Drawing = \frac{1 }{2}\)

Hence, the width of the wall on the drawing is \(\frac{1 }{2}\ inches\)

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what is the term for an amount of charge equal to 6.25 x 10 18 electrons?

Answers

Answer:

Question 1 (a) (i) Explain the term the effective exhaust velocity. (ii) Is it greater or smaller than the exhaust velocity? [2 marks] (b) (i) Calculate the change of velocity, Av, of a spacecraft of mass m and initial velocity v after the ejecting a small mass of propellant Amp with the velocity v relative the spacecraft. (ii) Passing to infinitesimal Amp, Av and integrating the obtained differential equation, derive Tsialkovky's equation. [2 marks] (c) (i) State two possible definitions of the specific impulse? (ii) Explain the words "specific" and "Impulse" in this term? (iii) Which definition is more often used and why? [3 marks] (d) A rocket engine burning liquid oxygen and kerosene operates at a combustion chamber pressure of 30 MPa. The nozzle is expanded to operate at the ambient pressure of 18 kPa. The specific impulse equals 340 s at this ambient pressure. Find its combustion chamber temperature. Adiabatic constant of the exhaust gas is 1.20, its molar weight is 23.2. [2 marks] (e) Find the mass flow rate of this engine described in Q1(d) if it produces 2.4 MN of thrust at the sea level (ambient pressure is 101 kPa). The exit diameter of the nozzle is 1.3 m. [2 marks] (f) A 15,000 kg spacecraft is in Earth orbit traveling at a velocity of 7,900 m/s. Its engine is burnt to accelerate it to a velocity of 11.2 km/s to reach the escape orbit. The engine expels mass at a rate of 125 kg/s and has a specific impulse of 430 s. Calculate the duration of the burn. [3 marks]

(a) (i) The effective exhaust velocity is a notional velocity that measures the efficiency of a reaction mass engine, such as a rocket or jet engine, in creating thrust by using its propellant more effectively. It is the speed at which the engine ejects its propellant, taking into account the mass of the combustion air that is not being accounted for in the calculation of actual exhaust velocity. (ii) The effective exhaust velocity is higher than the exhaust velocity because the latter only accounts for the mass of the propellant being ejected, while the former includes the acceleration of additional mass such as air that the engine has to process. (b) (i) The change of velocity, Av, of a spacecraft of mass m and initial velocity v after ejecting a small mass of propellant Amp with velocity v relative to the spacecraft is given by Av = Amp * Ve * ln(m0/m), where Ve is the effective exhaust velocity and m0 is the initial mass of the spacecraft and its propellant . (ii) Tsialkovky's equation is derived by passing to infinitesimal Amp, Av, and integrating the obtained differential equation. It gives the relationship between the effective exhaust velocity, the specific impulse, and the change in the mass of the spacecraft as it expels propellant. (c) (i) Two possible definitions of specific impulse are: (1) the change in momentum per unit mass of propellant used by the engine, or (2) the amount of time the engine can accelerate its own initial mass at 1g. (ii) The word "specific" means per unit mass of propellant used, while "impulse" refers to the change in momentum experienced by the engine due to its use of propellant. (iii) The first definition is more often used because of its application to the calculation of rocket performance, particularly in terms of the needed delta-v to reach a given destination. (d) The combustion chamber temperature for the given rocket engine can be found using the specific impulse formula, Isp = (g0 * Ve) / (gc * Cstar), where g0 is the standard gravity, Ve is the effective exhaust velocity, gc is the gravitational constant, Cstar is the characteristic velocity, and Isp is the specific impulse. Solving for Cstar and using the given values, we can find the combustion chamber temperature using the formula T1 = (2 * Cstar^2 * M)/(R * (k-1)), where T1 is the combustion chamber temperature, M

Explanation:

When is fall protection required in the construction industry

Answers

OSHA requires that fall protection be provided at elevations of four feet in general industry workplaces, five feet in shipyards, six feet in the construction industry and eight feet in longshoring operations.

The shear stress developed in a circular shaft subjected to a torque a Is constant at all points in the radial direction b Varles linearly along the radius c Varies linearly from zero at the center to a maximum at the outermost radius d Is zero at larger radii and a maximum at the center

Answers

The correct option for the variation of shear stress in a circular shaft subjected to a torque is option B, i.e., it varies linearly along the radius.
When a circular shaft is subjected to a torque, shear stress is developed due to the twisting action. The shear stress varies along the radial direction from the center to the outermost radius. The variation of shear stress can be determined by using the formula τ = T*r/J, where τ is the shear stress, T is the torque applied, r is the radial distance from the center, and J is the polar moment of inertia of the shaft.
From the formula, it is evident that shear stress is directly proportional to the radial distance from the center. Hence, the shear stress varies linearly along the radius. This means that the shear stress at any point on the cross-section of the shaft is proportional to its distance from the center and is maximum at the outermost radius.
Option A is incorrect as the shear stress varies along the radial direction. Option C is also incorrect as the shear stress is not zero at the center but is maximum at the center. Option D is also incorrect as the shear stress is maximum at the outermost radius and not at the center.
To sum up, the shear stress developed in a circular shaft subjected to a torque varies linearly along the radius. This means that the shear stress at any point on the cross-section of the shaft is proportional to its distance from the center and is maximum at the outermost radius.

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A(n) _____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.

Answers

Answer:

Unit test

Explanation:

Defintion: A test of each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.

The mass of a muon is 207 times the electron mass; the averagelifetime of muons at rest is 2.20 μs. In a certainexperiment, muons moving through a laboratory are measured to havean average lifetime of 6.85 μs. For the movingmuons, whatare (a)β(b)K,and (c)p (in MeV/c)?The rest energy of the electron is 0.511 MeV.

Answers

For moving muons in the given scenario, the values of β, K, and p are 0.824, (pc² / 104.977 MeV/c²), and √[(K + m0c²)²/c⁴ - m0²c²/c⁴] / c, respectively. These values are obtained through calculations using the provided data and relevant formulas.

The mass of a muon is 207 times the electron mass; the average lifetime of muons at rest is 2.20 μs. In a certain experiment, muons moving through a laboratory are measured to have an average lifetime of 6.85 μs.

The rest energy of the electron is 0.511 MeV. Formulas:Total energy of the particle: E = (m²c⁴ + p²c²)¹/², Where,

E = Total energy of the particle m = Rest mass of the particlec = Speed of light in vacuum p = Momentum of the particleβ = v/c, Where, β = Velocity of the particle/cK = Total Kinetic Energy of the particleK = E - mc²p = Momentum of the particle p = mv

To calculate the value of β for moving muons, we need to calculate the velocity of the muons. To calculate the velocity of the muons, we can use the concept of the lifetime of the muons. The average lifetime of muons at rest is 2.20 μs.

The moving muons have an average lifetime of 6.85 μs. The time dilation formula is given byt = t0 / (1 - β²)c², where,

t = Time interval between the decay of the muon measured in the laboratory.t0 = Proper time interval between the decay of the muon as measured in the muon's rest frame.c = Speed of light in vacuumβ = Velocity of the muon.

Hence,t0 = t / (1 - β²)c²t0 = 2.20 μs / (1 - β²)c²t = 6.85 μs. From these two equations, we can calculate the value of β.6.85 μs / t0 = 6.85 μs / (2.20 μs / (1 - β²)c²)β² = 1 - (2.20 μs / 6.85 μs)β² = 0.679β = 0.824. Hence, the value of β is 0.824.

To calculate the value of K for moving muons, we need to calculate the total energy of the muons. The rest mass of the muon is given bym0 = 207 × 0.511 MeV/c²m0 = 104.977 MeV/c².

The total energy of the muon is given byE = (m²c⁴ + p²c²)¹/²E = (104.977 MeV/c²)²c⁴ + (pc)²K = E - m0c²K = [(104.977 MeV/c²)²c⁴ + (pc)²] - (104.977 MeV/c²)c²K = pc² / (104.977 MeV/c²). Hence, the value of K for moving muons is pc² / (104.977 MeV/c²).

To calculate the value of p for moving muons, we can use the value of K calculated in p = √(E²/c⁴ - m0²c²/c²) / cHere,E = (m²c⁴ + p²c²)¹/²E²/c⁴ = m²c⁴/c⁴ + p²p²c²/c⁴ = (K + m0c²)²/c⁴p = √[(K + m0c²)²/c⁴ - m0²c²/c⁴] / c. Hence, the value of p for moving muons is √[(K + m0c²)²/c⁴ - m0²c²/c⁴] / c.

Therefore, the values of β, K, and p are 0.824, (pc² / 104.977 MeV/c²), and √[(K + m0c²)²/c⁴ - m0²c²/c⁴] / c respectively.

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A mechanical device rests in a level position on two supports, each 42 inches high, at 60°F. The support at one end is gray cast iron; at the other end, structural steel. What is the greatest amount the device can be out of level due to differences in expansion if the temperature rises to 165°F?​

Answers

Answer:

  0.006174 in

Explanation:

The thermal expansion coefficients I found were ...

  5.8×10^-6/°F for gray cast iron

  7.2×10^-6/°F for structural steel

Then the difference in expansion dimensions for a 42-inch length will be ...

  (42 in)((7.2 -5.8)×10^-6/°F)(165 -60)°F = (42 in)(1.4×10^-6)(105) = 0.006174 in

The difference in thermal expansion over that temperature range will be about 0.006174 inches.

I think the proactive stance is a better attitude to promote than after-the-fact worrying! when planning a long week of sunbathing on the beach, what type of dna damage should sunbathers be aware of before hitting the beach? multiple choice

Answers

I completely agree that a proactive stance is crucial when it comes to sunbathing on the beach. Sun exposure can cause a variety of DNA damage, which can ultimately lead to skin cancer. The types of DNA damage that sunbathers should be aware of include:

1. UV-induced DNA damage: UV radiation from the sun can cause damage to the DNA in skin cells, leading to mutations that can increase the risk of skin cancer.

2. Oxidative DNA damage: The sun can also generate reactive oxygen species (ROS) that can damage DNA by causing breaks and other changes.

3. Thymine dimers: UV radiation can cause thymine dimers, which are abnormal bonds between adjacent thymine bases in DNA. These dimers can interfere with DNA replication and transcription and may lead to mutations.

4. Photoaging: The sun can also cause premature aging of the skin, which is characterized by wrinkles, dryness, and other signs of damage.

Therefore, it's essential to take proactive steps to protect your skin before and during sun exposure. This can include wearing protective clothing, applying sunscreen with a high SPF, seeking shade during peak sun hours, and staying hydrated. By being proactive, you can reduce your risk of DNA damage and protect your skin from the harmful effects of the sun.

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The device shown below contains 2 kg of water. The cylinder is allowed to fall 800 m during which the temperature of the water increases by 2.4°C. Some amount of water is added to the container and the experiment is repeated. All other values remain constant. This time the temperature of the water increases by 1.2°C. How much water was added to the container?

Answers

Answer:

m_added = 2 kg

Explanation:

From the question, we are told that the cylinder is allowed to fall 800 m in height. Thus, the potential energy will be converted into heat energy which will increase the temperature of water .

Now, let the mass of the falling cylinder be denoted by "m1" and let h be the height of fall.

Thus;

Formula for potential energy = mgh

Thus, as said earlier it's converted to heat generated. So heat generated = m1gh

Now let's calculate the heat absorbed;

heat absorbed = (m2)cΔt

Where;

ΔT is change in temperature

c is specific heat of water .

m2 is mass of water

Heat absorbed = heat generated

Thus;

(m2)cΔt = m1gh

Δt = m1gh/(m2•c)

Now, in both cases of the water and cylinder, m1, g , h and c are constant

Thus, we have;

Δt = (m1gh/m2) × 1/c

Where;

(m1gh/m2) is denoted as a constant k.

Thus;

Δt = K/m

For the first experiment, we have;

m = 2 kg

Δt = 2.4

Thus;

2.4 = K/2

Multiply both sides by 2 to get;

K = 4.8

For the second experiment, we have;

Δt = 1.2

Also,we have seen that K = 4.8

Thus;

Δt = K/m

Thus;

1.2 = 4.8/m

m = 1.2

m = 4 kg

Thus,mass added is;

m_added = 4 - 2

m_added = 2 kg

Anything that is made to meet a need or desire is?
a) Design
b) Technology
c) Process
d) Tool

Answers

Answer:

Technology

Explanation:

It’s made to meet desire

It should be noted that Anything that is made to meet a need or desire is Technology.

What is Technology?

Technology can be regarded as the practical application of science.

Technology can be seen in areas such as

CommunicationTransportationAgriculture

However, Technology came up because of the necessity for it, people desire it.

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All residential sprinklers are required to have a thermal element or bulb, which is listed as?

Answers

All residential sprinklers exist required to have a thermal element or bulb, which is listed as Quick response.

What is Residential sprinklers?

The sprinkler stands as just a plug that holds back water in a pipe similar to your other plumbing pipes. The heat from a fire will damage a glass tube or melt a solder plug which releases the water. The water reaches out as a spray that protects the area immediately around the sprinkler, putting out the fire.

RFSS offers effective life safety protection in residential occupancies, including smaller dwellings, where delayed fire department response times can improve the risk of loss of life. Fire sprinkler systems established inside a building utilize less water than water streams from fire hydrants.

Quick response manufacturing exists as an approach to manufacturing that accentuates the beneficial effect of decreasing internal and external lead times. A quick response (QR) code exists as a kind of barcode that can be read easily by a digital device and which stores data as a series of pixels in a square-shaped grid.

QR codes exist frequently used to track information about products in a supply chain and are often employed in marketing and advertising campaigns.

Hence, All residential sprinklers exist required to have a thermal element or bulb, which is listed as Quick response.

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5 Systems Modeling
es / SPE(2201 / General / Business System Modelling CAT
2. Business Process Modelling is important to a business due to the following advantages except:
(2 marks)
O a. None of the above
h
O b. Enhances Customization of Business Processes
O c Enhances Competitive advantage
O d. Enhances Process Communication
age
Next pag​

Answers

Answer: None of the above

Explanation:

Business process modeling refers to the graphical representation of the business processes of a company, which is vital in the identification of potential improvements.

Business pticess modelling can be done through graphing methods, like data-flow diagram, flowchart etc. It is vital as business managers can effectively and quickly communicate their ideas.

It also enhances the customization of business processes, enhances the competitive advantage and enhances the process communication as well.

Therefore, the answer to the question will be "None of the above".

what is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 rpm?

Answers

The formula for calculating gear speed is: (rpm of the driving gear * number of teeth on the driving gear) / number of teeth on the driven gear.

What is the formula for calculating gear speed?

To calculate the speed of the spur gear, we can use the gear ratio formula, which is gear ratio = number of teeth on driven gear (spur gear) / number of teeth on driving gear (pinion gear).

In this case, the gear ratio is 42/14 = 3.

Next, we can use the formula for gear speed, which is gear speed = pinion gear speed / gear ratio.

Since the pinion gear is turning at 420 rpm, the gear speed of the spur gear is:

gear speed = 420 rpm / 3 = 140 rpm.

Therefore, the speed of the spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning at 420 rpm is 140 rpm.

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The vertical force F acts downward at A on the twomembered frame. Determine the magnitudes of the two components of F directed along the axes of AB and AC. Set F = 500 N. Solve problem 4 with F = 350 lb.

Answers

Vector addition parallelogram law :If a force F needs to be broken down into its component parts along the axes b and c, one should start at the head of the force and build lines parallel to the axes until a parallelogram is formed.

Solve the  problem ?

Vector addition parallelogram law :If a force F needs to be broken down into its component parts along the axes b and c, one should start at the head of the force and build lines parallel to the axes until a parallelogram is formed.

The parallelogram's sides are represented by Fb and Fc.

Finding the force component F AB and F AC applied at diagram point A is our task.

We can employ the law of sines, as shown in the diagram.

The query is unfinished.

The entire question is included as an image in the attachment, and an explanation is given below.

F AB / sin 60  = 500/ sin 75

F AB = 500/0.965*0.866

F AB =  448.7 N

To find F AC

F AC /sin 45 =500 /sin 75

F AC = 500/0.965* 0.7071

F AC = 366.3 N

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Datums and benchmarks are used for ______

Answers

Answer:

Measuring elevations

Explanation:

hope this helps you ♡´・ᴗ・`♡

If anyone knows manufacturing plz help

If anyone knows manufacturing plz help

Answers

Answer:

I don't know ask my dad he would

Explanation:

but I can't ask him because he went to get milk and forgot to come back

In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750 psia and 800 degrees * F and leaves at 100 psia. It is then reheated to 800 degrees * F passes through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia. Find the the heat rejected.

Answers

The given ideal reheat cycle diagram can be given as, Given  In an ideal reheat cycle, steams enters the high pressure turbine at 750 psia and 800°F and leaves at 100 psia.

It is then reheated to 800°F passes through the low pressure turbine and exhausts to a condenser at 1 psia. We need to find the heat rejected. To solve this problem, we need to find the enthalpy at different stages of the ideal reheat cycle. The enthalpy of steam can be calculated as follows.

Enthalpy of steam = hg + x * h fg where hg is the enthalpy of steam at saturation temperature, x is the dryness fraction of steam, and hfg is the enthalpy of vaporization. (For superheated steam, x = 1).Let's first calculate the enthalpy at the high-pressure turbine inlet.

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If the total length of a measurement is 10 1/2" what is half of this length?

Answers

Answer:

13.335 CM (1 ft, 1.335 cm)

I am 80% sure this is the answer, but i am not too keen on math so if i am wrong let me know and i will try my best to fix it!

I hope this helped! Have a good day :]

Why is possessing an ASE certification important to one's future as a technician?
Select one:
O a. Leads to better employment opportunities
O b. Allows the technician to transport raw materials to factories
O C.
Technicians gain firsthand experience in communicating effectively with customers in
person
O d. Leads to apprenticeship opportunities

Answers

Note that possessing an ASE Certification is crucial because; " Leads to better employment opportunities." (Option D)

What is an ASE Certification?

ASE certification, commonly known as Automobile Service Excellence, is given to an automotive mechanic who has finished the necessary training and acquired their Automotive Service Excellence Certified Master Technicians criteria.

There are 58 ASE certification examinations available, covering nearly every facet of the automobile repair and service sector.

The National Institute for Automotive Service Excellence (ASE) offers four levels of certification. They are:

ASE entry-level certification, Professional technician certification, Master technician certification, and ASE advanced level specialist certification.

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In a three-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier, each diode conducts for how long of the period of the three-phase input voltage? a) 90 Degrees. b) 120 Degrees. c) 180 Degrees. d) 360 Degrees In the below circuit, thyristors T1 and T2 receive a gate pulse at t = a. If the load current i, is as shown in plots below, which device/devices are conducting from t = tо t =л+α? a) T1 and D1. io b) T2 and D2. T₂7 c) D1 and D2. d) FD. e) None of the devices are conducting. D₁ a π л+α D₂ FD R Vo

Answers

In a three-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier, each diode conducts for 180 degrees of the period of the three-phase input voltage.

In the given circuit, from t = tо t = л+α, the devices conducting are D1 and D2.

A three-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier consists of six diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. Each diode conducts during the positive half-cycle of the corresponding phase of the three-phase input voltage.

In a three-phase system, one phase completes a full cycle in 360 degrees. Therefore, each diode conducts for half of the positive half-cycle, which is 180 degrees.

Regarding the given circuit, the load current i and the plots show the current waveforms for the devices. We can observe that during the interval from t = tо t = л+α, the current flows through D1 and D2. Thus, these diodes are conducting during this interval.

In a three-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier, each diode conducts for 180 degrees of the period of the three-phase input voltage. In the given circuit, the devices conducting from t = tо t = л+α are D1 and D2.

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New cities from scratch are often portrayed as utopian and solutions to the problems of existing cities (pollution, crime, poverty, poor housing, and infrastructure, etc.). This was the case with the 20th Century British New Town movement and it is again the case with new smart and sustainable master planned cities, although the details are very different. How would you assess the promises made about scratch cities and what might be of concern?

Answers

Assessing the promises made about new cities built from scratch requires a critical evaluation of their potential benefits and challenges. While such cities may offer solutions to existing urban problems, there are several factors of concern that need to be considered:

1. Implementation Challenges: Building a city from scratch is a complex and challenging task. It involves extensive planning, coordination, and financial investment. Delays and cost overruns can be common, impacting the realization of promised benefits.

2. Sustainability and Environmental Impact: New cities often promote sustainability and eco-friendly practices. However, there is a need to ensure that these cities truly deliver on their environmental promises throughout their lifespan. Issues such as resource consumption, waste management, and carbon emissions must be carefully addressed.

3. Social and Economic Equity: Scratch cities may claim to address social inequalities and provide affordable housing. However, ensuring equitable access to housing, education, healthcare, and employment opportunities for diverse socio-economic groups is crucial. Care must be taken to avoid creating new forms of exclusion and segregation.

4. Community Engagement and Identity: Creating a sense of community and fostering a unique city identity takes time and effort. It is essential to involve residents and stakeholders in the planning process to ensure their needs, preferences, and cultural aspects are considered.

5. Long-Term Viability: The long-term sustainability and success of new cities depend on various factors, including economic diversification, job creation, attracting investments, and adapting to changing demographics and technological advancements. Ongoing governance and management strategies are essential for their continued growth and development.

6. Infrastructure and Connectivity: Adequate infrastructure, transportation networks, and connectivity are vital for the smooth functioning and accessibility of new cities. Planning for efficient transportation systems, public spaces, and connectivity with existing urban areas is critical to avoid isolation and promote integration.

7. Economic Development and Job Opportunities: Scratch cities often promise economic growth and employment opportunities. However, the transition from initial development to a self-sustaining economy can be challenging. Ensuring a diversified and resilient economy with sustainable job opportunities is crucial for the long-term prosperity of the city.

8. Cultural and Social Vibrancy: Creating vibrant cultural and social spaces is important for the quality of life in new cities. Encouraging artistic expression, cultural events, and social interactions can contribute to the overall livability and attractiveness of the city.

In assessing promises made about scratch cities, it is important to critically analyze these factors and ensure that realistic expectations, proper planning, community engagement, and ongoing monitoring and evaluation are integral parts of the development process. This can help address concerns and increase the likelihood of achieving the envisioned benefits for residents and the wider community.

Assessing the promises made about new cities from scratch requires a critical evaluation of their potential benefits and potential concerns. While these cities hold the promise of addressing existing urban challenges, there are several aspects to consider:

Promises:

Urban Planning: New cities from scratch provide an opportunity for deliberate urban planning, allowing for the creation of well-designed and efficient infrastructure, transportation systems, and public spaces. This can lead to improved quality of life and a more sustainable environment.

Innovation and Technology: Many new cities aim to leverage advanced technologies and smart solutions to create efficient, connected, and sustainable urban environments. This includes the integration of renewable energy, smart grids, intelligent transportation systems, and data-driven management.

Social Equity: Scratch cities often promise to address social issues such as poverty and inequality. They may offer affordable housing, access to quality education and healthcare, and inclusive community spaces, aiming to create more equitable societies.

Economic Opportunities: New cities can attract investments, industries, and businesses, potentially creating new job opportunities and economic growth. They may offer a favorable environment for innovation, entrepreneurship, and the development of new industries.

Concerns:

Realization Challenges: Implementing a new city from scratch involves complex and long-term processes. Delays, budget overruns, and changing political priorities can hinder the realization of promised benefits, leaving residents and stakeholders disappointed.

Social Displacement: The creation of new cities may involve displacing existing communities or disrupting established social networks. This raises concerns about the potential marginalization of vulnerable populations and the loss of cultural heritage.

Sustainability and Environmental Impact: While new cities often aim to be sustainable, the actual environmental impact depends on factors such as resource consumption, waste management, and carbon emissions. The ecological footprint of construction, transportation, and ongoing operations must be carefully considered.

Affordability and Accessibility: Ensuring affordable housing, inclusive amenities, and accessible public services in new cities is crucial for addressing social equity. High costs, exclusionary practices, or limited accessibility can lead to socioeconomic disparities and exclusion.

Long-Term Viability: The long-term viability of new cities depends on various factors such as economic diversification, governance structures, citizen engagement, and adaptability to changing social, economic, and environmental conditions. Failure to anticipate and address these challenges can impact the sustainability and success of the new city.

Assessing the promises made about scratch cities requires a comprehensive evaluation of these factors, considering the specific context, governance frameworks, stakeholder engagement, and long-term planning. It is essential to carefully balance the potential benefits with the concerns to ensure the development of successful and inclusive new cities.

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6. You are evaluating flow through an airway. The current flow rate is 10 liters per minute with a fixed driving pressure (P1) of 20 cm H2O and a fixed downstream pressure (P2) of 5 cm H2O. Identify whether each statement is correct or incorrect if we pinch the lumen in the middle of the tube. a. The flow would decrease b. P1 would increase to maintain the flow rate c. The resistance would increase

Answers

Answer:

B) P1 would increase to maintain the flow rate ( correct )

C) The resistance would increase (correct )

Explanation:

flow rate = 10 liters per minute

Driving pressure (p1) = 20 cm H20

Fixed downstream pressure (p2) = 5 cm H20

The correct statements when we pinch the Lumen in the middle of the tube would be : P1 would increase to maintain the flow rate and The resistance would increase.this is because when we pinch the Lumen we reduce its diameter and the reduction of its Diameter will result to increased resistance against the flow and resistance of flow is directly proportional to pressure hence P1 would increase as well

The wrong statement would be : The flow would decrease

A two-dimensional flow field described by
V = (2x^2y + x)1 + (2xy^2 + y + 1 )j
where the velocity is in m/s when x and y are in meters. Determine the angular rotation of a fluid element located at x 0.5 m, y 1.0 m.

Answers

Answer:

the answer is

Explanation:

 We now focus on purely two-dimensional flows, in which the velocity takes the form u(x, y, t) = u(x, y, t)i + v(x, y, t)j. (2.1) With the velocity given by (2.1), the vorticity takes the form ω = ∇ × u = ∂v ∂x − ∂u ∂y k. (2.2) We assume throughout that the flow is irrotational, i.e. that ∇ × u ≡ 0 and hence ∂v ∂x − ∂u ∂y = 0. (2.3) We have already shown in Section 1 that this condition implies the existence of a velocity potential φ such that u ≡ ∇φ, that is u = ∂φ ∂x, v = ∂φ ∂y . (2.4) We also recall the definition of φ as φ(x, y, t) = φ0(t) + Z x 0 u · dx = φ0(t) + Z x 0 (u dx + v dy), (2.5) where the scalar function φ0(t) is arbitrary, and the value of φ(x, y, t) is independent of the integration path chosen to join the origin 0 to the point x = (x, y). This fact is even easier to establish when we restrict our attention to two dimensions. If we consider two alternative paths, whose union forms a simple closed contour C in the (x, y)-plane, Green’s Theorem implies that  

Show work Answer I. Redox titration (i.e., measured potential vs. %T). The titration experiment Analyte: Cr (100 mL of 0.1 M) Titrant: Fe3 (0.1 M) Reference: standard Ag/AgCl electrode. Reaction: Cr +Fe3 Cr3++Fe Handbook data: Fe3 e Fe2 E 0.770 v Standard Ag/AgCl reference electrode: E 0.222 V). Sketch the titration curve. Each axis's title and scale must be labeled; and the points of 50%T, 100% and 200%T must be indicated in the titration curve.

Answers

Determine the volume of the titrant (Fe3+) needed to reach the equivalence point. This can be calculated using the stoichiometry of the reaction and the known concentrations of the analyte (Cr) and titrant (Fe3+).

Plot the volume of titrant (Fe3+) on the x-axis. Use an appropriate scale based on the expected volume range.

Determine the potential (measured using the standard Ag/AgCl electrode) or %T (transmittance) for each point of the titration. The %T values can be measured experimentally or estimated based on the reaction stoichiometry.

Plot the potential or %T values on the y-axis. Use an appropriate scale based on the expected range of values.

Start plotting the titration curve by connecting the plotted points with a smooth curve. The curve will start at the initial point (volume of titrant = 0) and gradually increase or decrease depending on the reaction's nature.

Indicate the points of 50%T, 100%T, and 200%T on the titration curve by marking them with labels or symbols.

Remember to label the axes appropriately, including their titles and units. Provide a clear and concise legend if needed.

Note: The exact shape of the titration curve will depend on the specific reaction and experimental conditions. It may be helpful to consult a reference or textbook for a visual example of a redox titration curve.

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1) What two measures are used in rating the size of an injection molding machine?

2) What is packing the mold and why is it important in obtaining good injection molded parts?

3) How does high crystallinity in a resin affect the way the resin is injection molded, including any post-molding operations that might be done?

4) Why is it important to have the sections of the molded part as uniform in thickness as possible?

5) Assume that you are assigned to determine the minimum clamping force for a part to be molded out of polystyrene. The part cross-sectional area is 10 x 14 inches. What is the clamping force required if as a general rule, 2.5 tons of force are needed for each square inch of cross-sectional area?

6) Why is low specific heat capacity desired in a mold cavity material for some applications and a high specific heat capacity desired in others?

7) What feature in a mold will allow a hollow, cylindrical part to be made? Why are injection molding machines not as effective for mixing additives or other resins as are traditional extrusion machines?

8) What is a vent in the mold, what problems are prevented by the presence of a vent, and what parameters control its size?

Answers

1) The two measures used in rating the size of an injection molding machine are the clamping force and the shot capacity. The clamping force refers to the force exerted by the machine to keep the mold closed during the injection process.

2) Packing the mold involves applying additional pressure to the resin after the injection phase. This is done to ensure that the mold cavity is completely filled and that the plastic material is properly packed within the mold. Good packing is important because it helps to eliminate voids, reduce shrinkage, and improve the overall strength and quality of the injection molded parts.

3) High crystallinity in a resin affects the injection molding process and post-molding operations. Resins with high crystallinity tend to have slower melt flow rates, requiring higher processing temperatures and longer cooling times.

4) It is important to have uniform thickness in the sections of a molded part to ensure consistent cooling and minimize the risk of defects.
5) To determine the clamping force required, we multiply the part cross-sectional area (10 x 14 inches) by the general rule of 2.5 tons of force per square inch.

6) Low specific heat capacity is desired in a mold cavity material for some applications because it allows for faster cooling and shorter cycle times.

7) A feature in a mold that allows a hollow, cylindrical part to be made is called a core. The core creates the internal cavity of the part while the mold cavity forms the external shape.

8) A vent in the mold is a narrow gap or channel that allows for the escape of air, gases, or excess material during the injection molding process. It helps to prevent issues such as air trapping, burn marks, and incomplete filling of the mold cavity.

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rank the following gases in order of decreasing rate of effusion. rank from the highest to lowest effusion rate. to rank items as equivalent, overlap them.

Answers

It means that the gas with the lowest molecular weight will have the highest effusion rate.

What has the highest rate of effusion?

The given gases' effusion rates are listed in order from highest to lowest. The effusion rate of a hydrogen molecule is the highest, whereas that of a hydrocarbon is the lowest.

A gas will effuse faster when it is lighter and more slowly when it is heavier. Helium (He) will have the highest rate of effusion since it has the lowest molecular weight (atomic weight, in this example).

The following equation can be used to compare the rate of effusion for two gases: The effusion rates in this case are inversely related to the square root of the gas molecules' masses. A container contains an amalgam of neon and argon gas.

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