Answers
It’s 1.52mL
Related Questions
If Vanessa uses a sports drink in the future, how much glucose, sodium and potassium should be provided per 24 fluid ounces of sports drink?
A. No more than 30 g of glucose, 450 g of sodium and 225 mg of potassium.
B. No more than 75 g glucose, 150 mg sodium, 175 mg potassium.
C. No more than 15 g of glucose, 500 mg sodium, 200 mg potassium.
D. No more than 45 g of glucose, 225 mg of sodium and 275 mg of potassium.
Answers
Option D. No more than 45 g of glucose, 225 mg of sodium and 275 mg of potassium.
The answer to the question "If Vanessa uses a sports drink in the future, how much glucose, sodium and potassium should be provided per 24 fluid ounces of sports drink?" is option D. No more than 45 g of glucose, 225 mg of sodium and 275 mg of potassium.Sports drinks are formulated with an aim to replace the water, electrolytes, and energy (glucose) that are lost when sweating due to athletic activity. The total carbohydrate content in a sports drink typically ranges from 6% to 8%. The main source of carbohydrates is glucose or high-fructose corn syrup. These sugars deliver a quick and high amount of energy to fuel the muscles during exercise.The concentration of glucose, sodium, and potassium in a sports drink should be kept under specific limits as higher amounts can lead to dehydration and other health issues. No more than 45 g of glucose, 225 mg of sodium, and 275 mg of potassium should be provided per 24 fluid ounces of sports drink.Hence, the correct option is D. No more than 45 g of glucose, 225 mg of sodium and 275 mg of potassium.
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ou receive a call for a 49-year-old woman who passed out. no trauma was involved. the patient is semiconscious and has cyanosis to her lips. after opening her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, you should:
Answers
After opening the airway with the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver, you should suction the patient's airway and insert an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway, as appropriate. In an unconscious patient, the airway is not patent, or open, because the muscles that hold it open are not functioning.
Therefore, before ventilations can be given, the airway must be opened. The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver is the basic technique used to open an airway. When the patient is lying on his or her back, the tongue may fall back against the pharynx, and the epiglottis may fall over the glottic opening, blocking the passage of air into the lungs. The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver lifts the tongue and epiglottis off the glottic opening, opening the airway.
When the airway is opened, you must clear the airway of any secretions or foreign matter, such as vomitus or blood, with suction. Finally, an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway, as appropriate, should be inserted to keep the airway patent and prevent the tongue from falling back and blocking the airway again.
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A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on Sigmund Freud's theory, explains that a patients problematic behavior is based upon
A. A classically conditioned response
B. Observational learning without consequences
C. Being stuck in the developmental task of trust vs. mistrust
D. Unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties
Answers
Answer: The answer would be unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties because this is based on Freud's Theories
Explanation: Mom studied this in nurses training and then became an R.N.
Hope this helps! Dee Dee Riley
A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
How does Freud explain anger?Freud associates aggressive impulses with self-preservation drives, which would have the function of maintaining and affirming individual existence. In the same way, he postulates a genesis of its own for hate, when he states that “the apparent transformation of love into hate is just an illusion”
With this information, we can conclude that a therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
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The nurse made an error in documenting
nurse use for correcting a documentation
a patient's care. Which method would the
error in a paper chart?
Answers
Given that the nurse has made this error the way that she would be able to take care of the documentation error would be to draw a single line across the error she made along with her initials then she would follow through with the correct details.
What is meant by documentation error?This is the term that is used to refer to the error that the nurse would make while trying to write on what should be the information as it concerns a patient and the medication that they are to adhere to.
When she makes such an error she has to take the measure above before she would go ahead to do the right thing on paper. The nurse has to change this so that she would be able to communicate what is to be the correct information to the right people. If she keeps it as it was without corrections, she would be sending the wrong messages and this may bring confusions as well as misunderstanding.
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The client is prescribed a potassium supplement and spironolactone (Aldactone). Based on this combination, what outcome can be expected
Answers
The combination of a potassium supplement and spironolactone (Aldactone) in the management of heart failure can have several beneficial outcomes; Potassium balance, Fluid balance, Neurohormonal modulation, and Improved clinical outcomes.
Potassium balance; Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium while eliminating excess sodium and water. This medication can prevent or correct potassium imbalances that may occur in heart failure, as some diuretics used in heart failure management can lead to low potassium levels. By ensuring adequate potassium levels, it can help maintain proper cardiac function.
Fluid balance; Spironolactone is also a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, which is important in heart failure to reduce fluid overload and congestion. By reducing fluid retention, it can alleviate symptoms such as edema (swelling) and shortness of breath.
Neurohormonal modulation; Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist, meaning it blocks the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone helps counteract the adverse neurohormonal effects seen in heart failure and can improve cardiac function and remodeling over time.
Improved clinical outcomes; Studies have shown that the addition of spironolactone to standard heart failure therapy can improve clinical outcomes. It has been shown to reduce hospitalizations, decrease symptoms, and increase survival rates in patients with moderate to severe heart failure.
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Cleft lip, cleft palate, and spina bifida are associated with a vitamin C deficiency in the mother’s diet.
true of false
Answers
nothing that the parents do contributes to these deformities :)
Depositions are A. written quiestions that must be answered under oath. B. a discovery method for obtaining documentary evidence. C. a discovery method for avoiding the need to prove a fact in court D. a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath
Answers
Depositions are a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath. In a deposition, an attorney or representative of a litigant will ask questions of a witness or other party in order to elicit answers from them.
Correct option is C.
When done correctly, depositions are a powerful tool to obtain the evidence and to gather the truth about a case. The questions can be difficult, and the witness must be sure to answer them truthfully. Depositions are conducted outside of a courtroom, typically in an attorney’s office, and they are recorded.
The parties to the case will have to agree on the questions to be answered and the time the deposition will take place. The questions that are asked, and all of the answers provided, become part of the evidence for the case. Depositions help attorneys to prepare their case for a jury, as they can make sure that all the facts will come out in the open.
Correct option is C.
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Corporate compliance programs help an organization: (Click on all that apply).
Prevent violations of the law
Detect violations of the law
O Correct violations of the law
O Retaliate against reporters
Answers
Answer: Correct violation of the law
The _______ is made up of all of the nerves that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body.
Answers
Answer:
peripheral nervous system
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system consists of all of the body's nerves connected to the central nervous system.
What is Peripheral nervous system?
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is outside the brain and spinal cord. It sends information from our body to our brain and executes brain directives to our body.
There are two main parts to the peripheral nervous system: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls the body's automatic processes and glands. Somatic nervous system (SNS): controls muscle movement and sends information from the ears, eyes, and skin to the central nervous system.
Meanwhile the brain and the spinal cord are the components that make up the central nervous system (CNS).
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. 1. Could an automated medical diagnosis system ever replace live doctors? Why or why not? at least 200 words
Answers
The question of whether an automated medical diagnosis system could replace live doctors is a complex and multifaceted one.
While automated systems have made significant advancements in medical diagnosis and decision support, there are several factors to consider that suggest complete replacement is unlikely.
First and foremost, medicine is not solely about diagnosis. It encompasses a broad range of skills and expertise that extend beyond pattern recognition. Doctors possess comprehensive knowledge acquired through years of education, clinical experience, and patient interactions. They possess critical thinking abilities, empathy, and the capacity to assess complex medical situations holistically. These qualities are currently challenging for automated systems to replicate fully.
Additionally, medicine involves a human element. The doctor-patient relationship is built on trust, compassion, and effective communication. Patients often seek emotional support, counseling, and reassurance from their doctors. These aspects of healthcare delivery cannot be replicated by machines, as they require empathy, understanding, and the ability to address the unique needs and concerns of individual patients.
Furthermore, medical decision-making is influenced by a variety of factors, including patient preferences, values, and social context. Doctors consider multiple variables, weigh risks and benefits, and tailor treatments accordingly. Automated systems, although capable of analyzing vast amounts of medical data, may struggle to incorporate these nuanced aspects into their recommendations.
Another critical aspect to consider is the ethical and legal implications of automated medical diagnosis. Medical decision-making involves complex ethical considerations, such as patient autonomy, privacy, and accountability. Implementing fully automated systems raises questions about responsibility and liability in the event of errors or adverse outcomes.
That being said, automated medical diagnosis systems can be valuable tools for doctors. They can enhance efficiency, accuracy, and access to information, allowing doctors to make more informed decisions. These systems can assist with data analysis, provide evidence-based guidelines, and offer support in diagnosing rare conditions or complex cases. However, they should be viewed as aids rather than replacements for human clinicians.
In conclusion, while automated medical diagnosis systems have the potential to augment healthcare delivery, it is unlikely that they will completely replace live doctors. The practice of medicine encompasses not only diagnosis but also a multitude of skills, qualities, and human interactions that are challenging to replicate in machines. The human element, ethical considerations, and the holistic nature of medical decision-making make doctors indispensable in providing comprehensive and personalized care to patients.
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Which statement is true about epinephrine or an epinephrine overdose response?
A. Epinephrine is a relative contraindication when a patient taking non-selective beta-blockers.
B. Epinephrine is contraindicated when a patient who has atypical pseudocholinesterase.
C. During an epinephrine overdose, the patients should be reassured and positioned in a supine position.
D. The optimal dosage concentration for epinephrine is 1:1000 when used as a vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic.
Answers
The statement is true regarding the response to epinephrine or epinephrine overdose is C. During an epinephrine overdose, the patients should be reassured and positioned in a supine position.
What is epinephrine?Epinephrine or adrenaline is a drug to treat anaphylactic shock due to a severe allergic reaction. The anaphylactic shock that does not get proper treatment will be very life-threatening. In addition, epinephrine is also used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Epinephrine works by relaxing the muscles of the airways and increasing the tension in the blood vessels. These drugs work quickly to trigger heart action, increase blood pressure, ease breathing, soothe rashes, and reduce swelling of the face, lips, and throat.
In the event of an epinephrine overdose, the patient should be reassured and positioned in a supine position.
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Because Joe Dean’s ultimate goal was to swim in the Olympics, he was tempted to make illegal use of ____________steroids to increase his strength and muscle mass.
Answers
Answer:
Anabolic
Explanation:
Anabolic steroids are also known as anabolic–androgenic steroids. These steroids include androgens such as testosterone which is a hormone responsible for muscle mass and other secondary sexual characteristics in men.
Joe Dean’s ultimate goal was to swim in the Olympics and decided he decided to illegally make use of anabolic steroids to increase his strength and muscle mass.
a pharmacy technician is compounding an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment. it should be 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine. when the 40g order is complete how much of the solution will be the inactive solvent?
a. 2 g
b. 5 g
c. 38 g
d. 39.2 g
Answers
Answer:
When a pharmacy technician is preparing an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment containing 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, the amount of ointment that corresponds to the inactive solvent is 38 g.
Explanation:
If a pharmaceutical preparation of hydrocortisone ointment contains 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, it will contain only 2 g of these active compounds in 40 g of preparation. This means that the amount of inert or inactive solvent is 38 g.
1. Hydrocortisone 2% + calamine 3% = 5%.
40 g ------------------ 100%
X ------------------ 5%
Active components = (40 X 5) / 100 = 2g
2. Inactive solvent = Total amount - active components
Inactive solvent = 40 g - 2 g = 38 g
2% hydrocortisone ointment composition
Hydrocortisone ........ 0,8 g
Calamine ................. 1,2 g
Inert excipient ..... 38 g
Total ......................... 40 g
Do you like cake or icecream?
Answers
Answer:
cake :)
Explanation:
Answer:
kpop
Explanation:
ICE CREAMM SELENA
Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of marijuana use?
A.
Lower learning capabilities
B.
Weaker communication skills
C.
Increased memory
D.
Shorter attention span
Answers
Answer:
I think it's increased memory
Answer:
its c. increases memory
Define the term regulatory condition
Answers
Regulatory Conditions include the number of steps, the size of each step, and the shape of the staircase, just to name a few. Alongside this, the regulatory and non-regulatory conditions within the environmental context.
STEP BY STEP:
hope this helps. :)
"There is no life outside this solar system, and nothing you can say will change that fact!" Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Answers
Answer:
"Critical thinking requires an open mind."
Explanation:
Critical thinking is the type of thinking in which the person analyzes and evaluates the facts in a detailed manner. The analyzes then help in the formation of the judgment related to the given facts. Critical thinking aims towards a specific goal which includes the explanation of the facts, methods, and process of extracting the conclusion. It requires an acceptance of a broad mindset to accept certain facts and then evaluate from the given facts and details.
In the given excerpt, the person making such a remark about the solar system lacks the openness and accepting mindset. It is because of this reason that he exerts his thoughts and names it to be a fact.
The patient comes in complaining of syncope. The patient mentions that he has lost a sister earlier to heart disease and he is worried that heart disease runs in the family. The patient is 30 years old and he is tall and skinny.
Answers
What type of responsibility is it when the medical assistant helps the physician during a physical exam?
Answers
It is clinical responsibility when the medical assistant helps the physician during a physical exam.
In a healthcare setup, the responsibility of a medical assistant is to assist the doctor in providing treatments to patients. In a clinical setup, a medical assistant helps the physician in various functions. A physical exam of a patient is carried out in a clinical setting and the medical assistant plays an active role in assisting the doctor.
It is the responsibility of the medical assistant to record the medical history of the patient. The medical assistant also educates the patient about the examination procedure. The specimens are collected and managed by the medical assistant. The equipment needed for a physical procedure is also looked after and sterilized by a medical assistant in a clinical setting. The medical assistant also assists in managing medications for the patient.
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the client describes a test previously completed to detect a small bowel obstruction prior to admission to the hospital. the client states that the test involved insertion of a tube through the nose and lasted over 6 hours. the nurse determines which test name should be documented?
Answers
The nurse determines the Upper GI enteroclysis test from the client's description.
What is enteroclysis and how this test is performed?A test called enteroclysis is used to look within the small intestine. Once in position, a tube is inserted into the nose, throat, stomach, and small intestine. To see how the contrast passes through the gut structures, contrast dye is administered, and x-ray images are seen on a fluoroscopic monitor. When an abnormality in the small intestine is detected, the enteroclysis test is the most thorough way to determine if it is normal or not.A radiology department performs this test. MRI, CT, and x-ray imaging are all used, depending on the situation.The following are part of the test:
A tube is inserted by the medical professional through your nose or mouth and into your stomach and small intestine.Images are obtained while contrast material and air pass through the tube.The provider can observe the contrast's passage through the bowel on a monitor.Viewing all of the small bowel loops is the study's aim. During the exam, you can be requested to switch places.Due to the fact that it takes some time for the contrast to pass through the entire small intestine, the test may span several hours.The tube's positioning could be painful. The contrast material could give you the impression that your stomach is heavy.To learn more about pathological tests, refer to https://brainly.com/question/28258725
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5
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following vessels derive from the aortic arch?
OA. Right common carotid artery
OB. Right subclavian artery
OC. Brachiocephalic trunk
OD. All of the above
Answers
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:O determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.O identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.O look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.O find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
Answers
Identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
What should a patient’s initial assessment include?Forming a general impression, assessing mental status, assessing airway, assessing breathing, testing circulation, and identifying the patient’s priority for treatment and transfer to the hospital are the six components of primary evaluation. The pulse check is conducted quickly during the main evaluation.
Assessment is an essential component of the teaching-learning process, encouraging student learning and improving instruction in a number of ways. There are three sorts of classroom assessments: assessment for learning, assessment of learning, and assessment as learning. WHEN PERFORMING A PHYSICAL EVALUATION, YOU WILL USE FOUR TECHNIQUES: INSPECTION, PAPPING, PERCUSSION, AND AUSCULTATION. Unless you’re doing an abdominal exam, use them in that order.
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the fake pill or medicine taken by members of a control group is a
Answers
Answer:
a placebo is the medication
Which medication is the best line of treatment for asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A.
a decongestant
B.
an expectorant
C.
an analgesic
D.
an antitussive
E.
a bronchodilator
Answers
Answer:
e
Explanation:
opens up air way makes lungs syronger
What happens to the placenta in multiple births?
Answers
The placenta in multiple birth contains blood vessels which connect within it and divert blood from one fetus to the other.
What is Placenta?This is referred to an organ which is produced during pregnancy and it helps to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus so as to enable it grow and survive in the womb.It also forms a type of attachment between the mother and the fetus.
In the case of multiple births, the placenta has blood vessels which helps in the diversion of blood from one fetus to another for the adequate supply of nutrients thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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HIM us counted on yo process information very quickly after discharge. Do you think it was a good idea for the HIM Manager to leave the stack of forms on the HIM Director's desk to get clarification upon her return?
Answers
Answer:
No
Explanation:
Health information management (HIM) is defined as the practice of protecting the medical information of a patient in order to provide quality patient care.
HIM Manager has the responsibility to acquire and protect the patients' information and do not leave the forms on the HIM Director's desk to get clarification upon her return because in between the return of the Director, the medical information can be violated and the manager will not able to ensure patient information privacy and security.
Hence, HIM Manager should not leave the stack of forms on the HIM Director's desk rather he/she can come again with the forms when HIM Director will return.
A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) begins to bleed excessively from her nose and mouth. The nurse suspects antiphospholipid syndrome. What actions should the nurse take? What physician's orders should the nurse expect?
Answers
Answer:
????
Explanation:
????
17. What is the BEST thing you can do to help yourself respond calmly to a healthcare emergency?
know what to do and have the supplies to do it
call 9-1-1 immediately, before panic or fear start
consult a first-aid book on what to do
Obreathe deeply and meditate before responding
Answers
Answer:
I would say call 9-1-1 immediately
Explanation:
Answer:
call 9-1-1 immediately, before panic or fear start
Explanation:
If you wait for fear and panic to start you won't be able to do anyhting because your nerves wont let you.
How effective are cochlear implants in restoring hearing? does the implant work the same way for all people?.
Answers
Cochlear implants don't restore normal hearing. The implant does not function the same way for everyone.
Cochlear implant recipients are said to have mild to moderate hearing loss. Deaf people with cochlear implants can hear and understand speech. However, these devices do not allow for normal hearing. They are instruments that enable the processing and transmission of sound and speech to the brain. Everyone is not a good candidate for a cochlear implant.
Only those who are profoundly deaf are able to hear and learn to understand speech and other sounds thanks to cochlear implants, which are not suitable for everyone. Patients are said to have mild to severe hearing loss after getting these surgical implants because they DO NOT restore normal hearing.
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what’s an example of a body surface area formula